Reproving SOUL TRAP in his teaching on Revelation
Titus 1:13
“This witness is true. Wherefore rebuke them sharply, that they may be sound in the faith;”
King James Version (KJV)
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The Book Of Revelation: Chapter 2
The Soul Trap
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https://youtu.be/zCnZirSWpJ0?si=rYe0zc9anSUE-_k1
Disclaimer:
scary name SOUL TRAP WARNING.
This pastor or? Whatever has a multitude of errors we need to talk about. The only thing he does get right for the most part is the end of his sermon > He does understand the end game in that the AntiChrist will confirm a covenant with National Israel. Other than that, let's talk about his teaching. So why am I calling him out? He himself is mixing in leaven which I will expose here below and only giving milk and NOT MEAT not even close to MEAT. He talks about DOCTRINE but never GOES DEEP because he goes over a class as a sunday school class of children drinking milk.
Errors:
The Lord’s Day is NOT the Day of the Lord.
The Lord Willing I will be posting a follow up from the Video Titled: "Why The Lord's Day is e so important in Revelation" THE LORD'S DAY IS IMPORTANT.
The reason this false teacher sets up his STRAWMAN False Narrative of John in the Day of the Lord in his vision is to try to tell us that these churches in Revelation are IN THE TRIBULATION.
Why does he NOT teach KING JAMES?
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out how many intentional, spiritually satanic influenced, if not
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filled men enter into seminaries and enter into Bible colleges and enter into
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the ministry for the express satanic purpose of leading the body of Christ
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astray. not by accident because they compromise, but an intentional conspiratorial design
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by Satan to infect and inflict as much harm as he can. And I believe that from
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the top of my head
Why does he NOT tell us about how ALL the SEMINARIES ARE THEMSELVES APOSTATE??? Go into this detail. What about the GOSPEL? What about the King James Bible? What about the DOCTRINE of the Nicolaitans other than a very elementary definition see my study on EXAMINE OURSELVES.
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/01/let-us-examine-ourselves-gospel-kjv.html
This false teacher has no clue of the Deeds of the Nicolaitans or the Doctrine of Balaam other than a superficial level.
The Catholic church is NOT the parallel church only.
RELIGION is the FORCE but he coins it as the Catholic Church.
He does not understand the modern today churches of LAODICEA and PHILADELPHIA.
In each church there is a remnant that comes out. Including Laodicea.
He does NOT UNDERSTAND THE MYSTERY or the KINGDOM PARABLES The great Irony here is he says that Revelation Churches mirror 7 parables of Matthew 13 - as I pointed out there are 8 NOT 7. Misses number 8 the HOUSEHOLDER which is the MYSTERY. And also he does not understand the MUSTARD SEED - Parable grows corrupt as time progresses and the BIRDS in the branches to fully discuss The Church of Laodicea.
Why does he mention Laodicea but hasn't explained it yet?
He’s right about Mystery Babylon and Catholicism - he fails to mention the queen of heaven - Jezebel
TOP of the Pyramid is Satan. The Jesuits and the Laodicean Elite Cabal etc are his tools.
I challenge to see this SOUP CHURCH is a 501C3.
See my studies.
Emphasis and Structure: The adjectival form shifts emphasis to the day's character (a day set apart for the Lord, like a weekly observance), while the genitive stresses the Lord's direct involvement (a specific event or era of divine action). If they were meant to be identical, the Greek would likely mirror the common prophetic phrasing, but it doesn't—indicating a purposeful distinction.
Case and Agreement: Both phrases use the dative case for "day" in some contexts, but the modifier's form (adjective vs. genitive noun) alters the syntax. The adjective must agree in gender, number, and case with "day" (feminine singular dative), creating a tighter, descriptive bond, whereas the genitive noun stands in a looser possessive relationship.
See Notes below on detailed Grammar - Syntax - usage Vocabulary and Harmonizing this with scripture
Thank God it looks like he’s using a King James Bible and that he understands these are literal Christian Churches and NOT referring to Israel as the Hyper-Dispensational false teachers teach. See my study blog on this. He is correct in that these churches were and are real churches. He fails to mention more significant details which needs to be understood. In my blog here I have this laid out. Allow me to clearly remind the reader that in These Churches Ephesus was the church that caused Paul a great deal of problems with their obsession with material things and the things of this world over Jesus Christ.
I believe this teacher may be a Zionist and fear teaching against the Judaizers which brutally tortured PolyCarp and murdered him. He fails to mention why Smyrna was plagued by the Judaizers the same as today as the TRUE CHURCH Philadelphia is plagued by them.
The English word "apostolic" does not appear anywhere in the text of the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible. The KJV, published in 1611, uses related terms like "apostle" (appearing about 19 times in singular form, e.g., Matthew 10:2: "Now the names of the twelve apostles...") and "apostles'" (possessive, e.g., Acts 2:42: "And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine..."). However, the adjective "apostolic" itself is absent.
For context:
The underlying Greek New Testament also lacks apostolikos (ἀποστολικός). Instead, it frequently uses the noun apostolos (ἀπόστολος) around 80 times to refer to apostles like Peter, Paul, and others.
The concept of something "apostolic" (e.g., apostolic teaching or succession) developed in later Christian theology and is not directly worded as such in the biblical text.
He says get into the MEAT
One of these 7 LEAVEN? No. All of these are false teachings.
Chapter 2 4 sections?
Example:
No. Ephesus was NOT full of the Apostles. Cultural Context: In Greek culture, Ephesus was famous as the site of the Temple of Artemis (one of the Seven Wonders of the Ancient World), and its name carried associations with wealth, trade, and religious significance rather than a specific lexical meaning. In the New Testament, Ephesus is prominent as a center of early Christianity (e.g., Paul’s ministry in Acts 19 and the Epistle to the Ephesians). Paul writes about the many problems of Ephesus. See my study on the 7 churches of Revelation.
The English word "apostolic" does not appear anywhere in the text of the King James Version (KJV) of the Bible. The KJV, published in 1611, uses related terms like "apostle" (appearing about 19 times in singular form, e.g., Matthew 10:2: "Now the names of the twelve apostles...") and "apostles'" (possessive, e.g., Acts 2:42: "And they continued stedfastly in the apostles' doctrine..."). However, the adjective "apostolic" itself is absent.
For context:
The underlying Greek New Testament also lacks apostolikos (ἀποστολικός). Instead, it frequently uses the noun apostolos (ἀπόστολος) around 80 times to refer to apostles like Peter, Paul, and others.
The concept of something "apostolic" (e.g., apostolic teaching or succession) developed in later Christian theology and is not directly worded as such in the biblical text.
Nicolaitans Judaizers The Vatican and all of its heretical doctrine Most notably MAGISTERIUM TRINITY SAINTS MARY QUEEN OF HEAVEN TRANSUBSTANTIATION
See my studies that identify and address these.
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2024/03/the-seven-churches-of-revelation.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2024/03/revelation-19-conclusion-we-must.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/07/the-wolfs-craft-charlie-kirks-battle.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/04/case-study-setting-scribes-above.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/06/the-mystery-of-heavens-kingdom-divine.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/01/let-us-examine-ourselves-gospel-kjv.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2024/07/rightly-dividing-abrahamic-covenant.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/04/the-vatican-exposed-seeing-with-eyes.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2023/02/which-church-do-you-belong-church-of.html
ENTER THE JUDAIZERS
Exposing more lies from the Seducing spirit of the JUDAIZERS #ZIONISM #Antichrist
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/03/judaizers-archive-amir-tsarfati-video.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/03/the-laodicean-church-coming-back-to.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/03/d-r-f-t-bridesmaids-parable-of-10.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/02/my-personal-testimony-in-kingdom-and.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/07/the-lord-rebuke-you-christian-zionists.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/07/the-church-along-with-great-cloud-of.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/03/the-mother-of-harlots-bringing-back-her.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2025/03/the-laodicean-church-coming-back-to.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2024/08/lets-talk-about-romans-913-jacob-have-i.html
https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2024/05/revelation-19-and-matthew-13-kingdom.html
Notes:
English Syntax in the KJV Translation
"The Lord's Day": This uses a possessive adjective ("Lord's"), which is a contracted form of "Lord his" or similar, functioning like an attributive modifier. It's concise and implies inherent belonging, e.g., "the day that is the Lord's."
"The Day of the Lord": This employs a prepositional phrase ("of the Lord"), which syntactically acts as a genitive equivalent in English, emphasizing possession through relation (e.g., "the day belonging to/associated with the Lord").
Why Not Syntactically the Same: The possessive adjective creates a direct, adjectival modification, while the prepositional phrase introduces a relational clause. In English, as in Greek, this difference avoids equivalence—if the KJV translators intended identity, they could have used the same phrasing throughout, but they preserved the Greek's distinct structures. This reflects the original intent: one for a regular worship day, the other for a singular prophetic event.
These grammatical choices substantiate that "the Lord's day" refers to Sunday (the first day of the week, tied to Christ's resurrection and early Christian worship), while "the day of the Lord" denotes a future day of judgment. Confusing them often stems from overlooking these linguistic nuances, leading to interpretive errors by some teachers.
Other Scriptures Highlighting the Difference
The Bible doesn't explicitly state "the Lord's day is Sunday and not the day of the Lord," but the distinction emerges through contextual contrasts: "The Lord's day" aligns with weekly New Testament practices on the first day of the week, while "the day of the Lord" is consistently eschatological (end-times focused) across both Testaments. Below is a table comparing key scriptures, grouped by category, to illustrate this. These show "the Lord's day" inferred as a day of worship and resurrection celebration, versus "the day of the Lord" as a time of reckoning.
These scriptures collectively demonstrate the difference: The first group ties to New Testament practices on the first day (Sunday), emphasizing worship, giving, and resurrection joy, while the second group uses "day of the Lord" for a future, often terrifying event of God's intervention. No single verse directly contrasts them in one passage, but the patterns across the Bible—weekly vs. eschatological—clarify the separation, supported by the grammatical distinctions above.
The 7 churches of Revelation do NOT Match the Kingdom Parables. There are 8 Kingdom Parables and of course he leaves out the 8th HOUSEHOLDER which ultimately is the MYSTERY of the Church and our role with Jesus Christ in the Millennial Kingdom and I believe beyond into the eternal state. See my studies:
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