CASE STUDY: KJV too hard to understand? Then time to check your faith.

Replying to
@AndrewTHTravel and others:

Just curious but why do you use the King James version? I don't know anyone who understands or speaks Shakespearean English. It's much more easy just to read a plain English version.

My Response:

Thank you dear Soul. Let’s go into this:

First the reason behind the KING JAMES being the FINAL AUTHORITY of God’s word in the English Language is not so much with the translation nuances - although it makes a very big difference, the REAL PROBLEM is the source documentation for the modern bibles comes from corrupted manuscripts going back to the Septuagint LXX - Sinaiticus, Vaticanus etc. All of this is discussed in detail in these blogs including the many debates I’ve had with Seminary Students over the years. Also included are my studies with Dr. John Hinton Harvard Divinity Ancient Hebrew/Greek Linguist. I am also a licenced language teacher and have taught and done missionary work in Asia and Hispanic cultures for several years and I am bilingual.

Now I would like to show a quick example if you would please look at:

We will use your question and examine your grammar, syntax and the meaning of what you’ve written, which I’m sure is how you speak. We can agree that I, as a native English speaker, completely understand what you're saying. However,... “what you’re saying is NOT correct and the meaning of your sentence. Okay let’s pretend that your phrase is a very important scripture and let’s compare your phrase with the proper grammar:“I don't know anyone who understands or speaks Shakespearean English. It's much more easy (easier is used for one and 2 syllable adjectives) just to read a plain English version.”

The word easy is a two-syllable adjective ending in -y. According to English grammar rules for comparatives, two-syllable adjectives ending in -y typically take -er instead of using more.

So, the comparative form of easy is easier, not more easy.

As an example look at the problem in misusing grammar: Potential Misinterpretation:

Deep Study: The incorrect form could cause a slight misreading of the sentence’s flow or emphasis, leading you to question whether the writer meant something specific by more easy. For example, you might wonder if they’re comparing easy to another quality (e.g., "more easy than effective"), though the context clarifies it’s a straightforward comparison.
Example Analysis: If the letter is part of a high-stakes proposal, you might study the sentence closely to ensure you’re not missing a nuanced point. This could lead to over-emphasizing the simplicity of the plan, potentially skewing your evaluation of its feasibility.

Now let’s go look at a few examples of a modern bible translation - which you claim is easier to understand - as compared to the King James Bible Tell me which is doctrinally correct when applied to through Hermeneutics to include CONTEXT - Grammar - Vocabulary Syntax (all part of Exegesis) and Comparing scripture with scripture.

Galatians 2:16 and 2:20 KJV - Compare to ESV . ONE little PRESPOSITION REALLY DOES MATTER. Question is our Justification based on OUR FAITH or does it match GRACE which is literally a GIFT and NOT of ourselves or OUR WORKS See Ephesians 2:8,9.

Why It Matters: In Galatians, a letter addressing legalism and faith, the preposition of vs. in shapes whether readers see justification and Christian living as rooted in Christ’s faithfulness (KJV) or their own faith in Him (ESV).

Our homework:

Compare 2 Timothy 3:16 with Psalm 12:6, 7 KJV - ESV. Please tell me the difference.

Now go and compare Isaiah 14:12 with Revelation 22:16 ESV - KJV. Note all modern Bible translations including NEW KING JAMES are going to have hundreds of major errors. I have done the research.

The KJV uses unstable in all his ways. Which lines up with scripture of a double minded man? Wavering or LIMPING???

When we go to James 1:6 we know that Wavering is very different from doubting. Here’s why:

KJV:

v6: “But let him ask in faith, nothing wavering. For he that wavereth is like a wave of the sea driven with the wind and tossed to and fro.”

ESV:

v6: “But let him ask in faith, with no doubting, for the one who doubts is like a wave of the sea that is driven and tossed by the wind.”

In Revelation’s epistle-like message to Laodicea, “waver” better captures the dynamic failure of “jumping back and forth” between zeal and indifference, urging a decisive choice (hot or cold). This parallels Elijah’s challenge in 1 Kings 18:21 to stop wavering and James’s warning against doubting faith. A reader of this “letter” would see lukewarmness as an active vacillation, needing correction through commitment (Revelation 3:19).

REVELATION 3:19 depart from me I NEVER KNEW YOU LUKEWARM - double minded - wavering.

“Double minded” suggests the root cause of lukewarmness (a divided heart), but “waver” better describes the outward behavior of inconstancy, aligning with your “jumping” imagery.

In my deep study of the terror of ISAIAH 6 AND the Matthew 13 Kingdom parables with Revelation 1:9 KJV focusing on Luke 8:13 the STONY GROUND that has NOT ROOT = the Spirit of Christ Romans 8:9 AND THE FRUIT OF A PERSON.

WHEN USING CORRUPT TRANSLATIONS CORRUPT FRUIT COMES OUT.

end quote.

Note: After my response they began a rant of belligerent comments/questions trying to bait me into a racist xenophobic bigotry.

example:

Okay I scam through your reply but it was way more than what I wanted to spend time reading. But you get my point that I would rather read something that I understand directly then have to do a conversion in my brain to understand it for example v and thou I have to convert to you and your in my brain. Yes I get that some things aren't translated exactly to perfection but most people still understand the meaning of what the verse is trying to say. I know there are probably more than 25 different versions and some of them from what I understand are translated directly from the original Greek or Aramaic documents.

Andrew Sheets

@AndrewTHTravel

Thank you for at least taking a few moments to read what I sent. This is important. I pray you understand that words do matter in the WORD OF GOD. And that you actually don't believe that it matters not what words mean but what you understand by seemingly easier language.

They respond:

Based on that logic we should all learn to read and comprehend Aramaic Hebrew or Greek. Why is English, the King James English in particular, the dominant language of a Bible that was written by people who spoke other languages in a different time?

I ended up blocking them quoting: " My final comment before blocking you: Titus 3:9 King James Version 9 But avoid foolish questions, and genealogies, and contentions, and strivings about the law; for they are unprofitable and vain."

The Third Heaven Traveler

CASE STUDY: KJV too hard to understand? Then time to check your faith.

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