CASE STUDY Another FOOL attempting to refute the KING JAMES BIBLE with Greek
A few days ago I posted the following Blog
and received the comment below that needs
to be made into a CASE STUDY.
I posted the following video and associated Blog
study links. I had the following comment using
Why the King James Bible says THE LORD and
Perverted Translations delete THE
I immediately recognized the comment as an old worn out retread what I'd coin as an apostate
seminary parlor trick using Greek or Hebrew to foil, entrap, and deceive the feeble minded and
non-King James Bible reading Saints.
I've seen it many times and I need this CASE STUDY to help new Christians see through this
terribly wicked deception.
https://youtu.be/AaqcNovAbuU?si=5suX_7jLzxO8m17O
@biblicaltheologyexegesisan9024
I really think you do not know what you are talking about, please show me any where in the text where the article appears. i am referring to greek texts
@vietrandy1
My Response:
@vietrandy1
Are you serious? You go tell that to the feeble minded or fools. Ancient Greek often omits the definite article because it is understood. Go back to school. If you keep up this silly banter I will delete and block you and use you as my new POSTER CHILD in a CASE STUDY.Specifics: Contextual Clarity in cases where the context is clear as in the case of 1 Corinthians 12:3 KJB LORD is the one and only GOD ALMIGHT the definite article THE is omitted in Greek but not in English. If you like to read further you can see the deep study on why it is clear that God almighty is described as LORD.
Wherefore I give you to understand, that no man speaking by the Spirit of God calleth Jesus accursed: and [that] no man can say that Jesus is the Lord, but by the Holy Ghost.
ουδεις
no one
δυναται
he can
ειπειν
to say
κυριον
lord
ιησουν
Jesus
ει
if
μη
not
εν
in(to)
πνευματι
to spirit
αγιω
to holy
No one he can to say Lord Jesus if not in (to) to spirit to holy.
Note: Why don't the English translations translate the GREEK LITERALLY WORD FOR WORD? These scoffers and mockers are hypocrites.
Whereas this does NOT happen in English when describing the ONE AND ONLY. Please, if you do not understand the use of the definite article THE in the English Language please study this link:
Look at this example: a Lord, Lord, the Lord.
a Lord = indefinite article meaning one of many Lords. Lord = a Title and could be attributed to any Lord. The Lord = One who is supreme being over all.
Contextual Clarity: Greek often relies on context to indicate specificity. The meaning is usually clear without the need for the definite article.
As a licensed Language Teacher with years teaching English as a Second Language and teaching Spanish to English Native speakers to literally thousands of students over the years from formal corporate language centers to High School in the USA, I find that teaching an understanding of the King James Bible that many who are not fluent in at least 2 languages have no comprehension of the differences in translations. I have pointed out several times in Greek literal to English as the example above and also look at some Spanish to English examples:
English Literal: To Give in the Nail.
Actual meaning: To Hit the Nail on the Head.
Spanish: "Me di cuenta de que había olvidado mi llave."
Literal English Translation: Me - myself - I gave of that which I had forgotten my key" OR some would say: "I gave myself account that I had forgotten my key."
Actual Meaning: "I realized that I had forgotten my key."
For the fool Greek Scholar who commented to me it is him saying that we have to translate into English EXACTLY WORD FOR WORD as is written in the original language. I pray the reader and viewer of this video can understand the absolute absurdity of this.
Notes:
Notes:
See related CASE studies of False Teachers like Amir Tsarfati, Jonathan Cahn the CON MAN, Steve Ben Nun, Jacob Prasch use Hebrew to trick the feeble minded into thinking they have to understand HEBREW in order to understand the WORD of God. Time and time again after examining what these false teachers preach I have found them in great doctrinal error using the King James Bible and the Ancient Hebrew Lexicon. It's in the links below.
I have also used a Greek Scholar Phd Ancient Greek, native Greek speaker's attempt to tell the feeble minded that only a Greek Scholar can properly interpret the New Testament.
In a thorough examination of John 21:14-17 KJB I found this Greek Scholar a LIAR and feeling unworthy I called my dear friend and brother Dr. John Hinton Phd Harvard Divinity ancient Greek and Hebrew, to confirm. It's all documented in the link "How to Study the King James Bible.
Notes:
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