Time to take a hard look at 2 Thessalonians 2:2-3, 7 KJV #Rapture #AntiChrist #EndTimes

Its time to take a hard look at 2 Thessalonians 2:2-3, 7 KJV.


I am a PreTribulation Rapture believer and thoroughly believe as it is written in the KJV Bible that 2 Thessalonians 2:2-3 KJV is talking about the Pre-Tribulation Rapture of the Church "Physical Departure" NOT "Spiritual Departure"  before the AntiChrist is revealed.

 When you find the time, please study the use and purpose of Articles (know the reason and difference between definite and indefinite articles), Nouns (study especially unspecified nouns and the meaning), and Verbs. (study especially the meaning of a verb and its purpose and the use of the Verbing of a Noun (English Verbing) and examples to further understand.

​Close examination of The Unspecified Noun Phrase with the indefinite article "A":  ​A FALLING AWAY​. First, let's ask ourselves why did the King James Translation translate the Greek word apostasia as " falling away " and not ​the way the ​Geneva​ Bible did​ as "departure".

NOTE:  A SPECIFIC FALLING AWAY EVEN DOES NOT HARMONIZE WITH MATTHEW 24:12 And because iniquity shall abound, the love of many shall wax cold.

WE SEE HERE INIQUITY IS CORPORATE AND ONGOING PROCESS OF GETTING WORSE AND WORSE.  NOT A SPECIFIC A FALLING AWAY. 

First: the Geneva​ translators​ knew by context the meaning of apostasia means to separate,  divorce or depart. They wanted to provide the reader with the most applicable translation. The King James translators continually made ACCURACY as their hallmark. There's tremendous background on this in Dr. Grady's book THE FINAL AUTHORITY. 

Looking deeper into the grammar we see the article "A" used before the ​unspecified noun phrase "Falling Away".  When we look at the root word Apostasia we find G868 aphistemi which shockingly is a VERB phrase NOT a noun. As I stated above please understand verbing nouns.  I believe the King James Translators saw this clearly and that's why they wanted to stay with the pure direct translation from Greek.  What this means is this is a specified ACTIVITY which matches perfectly in context:  A REMOVAL... TO GO AWAY. See exhibit.  which apostasia is. .   that is definitely ​verb phrase falling away​.  This is very important.  Without going into deep detail of what an indefinite article is and their use in grammar.  

Here's an addition I'd like to add:

CONTEXT & HARMONIZING are always your best friends in solid Bible Hermeneutics.  Paul would not be referring to a spiritual falling away because verse 3 of 2 Thessalonians chapter 2 couldn't harmonize with verses 7 and 8. 

Check this out for a good check: I will be using common colloquial language slang for simplification:

verse 3:  The Tribulation can not come until a physical departure of the Saints (Rapture), and then the AC come on the scene.

harmonized

verse 7 and 8: The Antichrist can't come on the scene after the Saints are Raptured removed physically.  {Further explanation: There is always the presence of evil - the spirit of the antichrist at work in this age,  HOWEVER, when  the Spirit of Jesus Christ - living within the Saints leaves - because the Saints are REMOVED from this earth - Raptured - then that means His Spirit which is the restraining power that holds back the full WICKED ( G459 - G355 adjective used a NOUN meaning a person = the Antichrist}.

OR DOES THIS MAKE SENSE:

verse 3:  The Tribulation can not come until there is a spiritual departure from truth *not raptured *not physically removed - people don't follow God's word,  there has never been a spiritual departure from truth by mankind until this day in the future and when this spiritual departure takes place THEN the Antichrist  will come on the scene.

NOT HARMONIZED

verse 7,8:  The Antichrist can't come on the scene until after the Saints are Raptured = physically removed.  {Further explanation: There is always the presence of evil - the spirit of the antichrist at work in this age,  HOWEVER, when  the Spirit of Jesus Christ - living within the Saints leaves - because the Saints are REMOVED from this earth - Raptured - then that means His Spirit which is the restraining power that holds back the full WICKED ( G459 - G355 adjective used a NOUN meaning a person = the Antichrist}.

​

Background:

I am particularly pleased that Angel White brought out a powerful point in her video: JD Farag swaps Day of Christ for the Tribulation. See video link here:


JD Farag swaps Day of Christ for the Tribulation Angel White nails it with JD Farag


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=LQheHLc5n_0&t=1s


She nailed it. However, sadly, Angel White is in great error in not believing in the Pre Tribulation Rapture. It’s also disturbing that this woman is obsessed with Trump being the AntiChrist and seems to be preparing her faithful following to get ready to deal with Trump when he comes in as the AntiChrist. For what it’s worth I believe the Pope may be the AC, or the False Prophet, Maybe Trump could be the AntiChrist I even did a Blog on the subject, but we as saved Christians don’t really care because we will not be here when the AC comes on the scene. We have 1 Thessalonians 4:16,17,  5:1-11 KJV 2 Thessalonians 2:2-3 KJV, 1 Corinthians 15:51-54 KJV proving this as well as Revelation chapters 4 through 6. And From what I can tell Angel White is a mid tribulation Rapture believer.  She can read my Blogs in notes below which prove the PreTribulation rapture by scripture alone. 


Moving on, as I said in my introduction, we need to look at 2 Thessalonians 2:2-3 KJV an really understand what is being said here. Both Dr. Andy Woods and JD Farag are spot on accurate about the "physical departure" or Rapture is what Paul is referring to in 2 Thessalonians 2:3 KJV.   And Dr. Woods goes at great length to prove that it is definitely physical departure that Paul is speaking of.   JD Farag jumps on this but both are trying to tell us that the KJV Bible was in error by writing apostasia instead of harpazo.  Please see my notes below on why the KJV translators used apostasia instead of harpaso. 

 Sadly JD is hard core WRONG about verse 2 of 2 Thessalonians 2 being the Tribulation. No JD this is Jesus appearing in the heaven to Rapture the body of Christ.  JD is wrong because he got his information from Dr. Andy Woods who got it wrong because both of them are using perverted Bible translations. 

 Please see my notes below about how Bible Translation is so important and why all modern versions are perverted. See Dr. Hitson, Phd Harvard defend the KJV and Dr. Grady’s work The final authority fully documents why today’s modern Bible translations are satanic.


This is not the first time I’ve taken both Andy Woods and JD Farag to task on teaching wrong doctrine from using perverted Bible translations. Please see my extensive studies on both of these men:


Dr. Andy Woods almost has it correct but again, his corrupt Bible translation trips him up.


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=UOa8m7hOaXs&t=2407s


See detailed study on my rebuking Dr. Andy Woods where he butchers Luke 17 because of wrong Bible translation.


https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2018/10/reproving-dr-andrew-woods-case-study-in.html

This is most likely where Dr. Woods gets his incorrect "theory":

Dr. Ice's wrong assumption 

I strongly disagree with Dr. Ice's stupid conclusion why the King James translation used falling away. You can read it and this proves why Dr. Woods and the modern scholars love the NASB

extension://elhekieabhbkpmcefcoobjddigjcaadp/https://www.pre-trib.org/pretribfiles/pdfs/Ice-TheDepartureIn2Thess2-3.pdf

Here's my previous study showing how JD Farag uses corrupt Bible translations to make heretical statements: 

Rebuking JD FARAG 2 Timothy 1:7


https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2018/04/rebuke-reprove-jd-farag-april-25-2015.html


JD Farag copies Dr. Andy Woods and almost has 2 Thessalonians Chapter 2 verses 2 and 3 correct but again like Dr. Woods is tripped up by using a corrupt Bible translation


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Us7-jOaEDis&t=526s


https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Us7-jOaEDis&t=526s



http://preteristcentral.com/Exposition%20of%20II%20Thessalonians%201%20&%202.html



Here is what 2 Thessalonians 2:2-3KJV says:

2 Thessalonians 2:2-3
King James Version

2 That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.

3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;



Study at length and anyone can know for certain that the day of Christ means when the Lord Jesus Christ descends from heaven and calls his saved saints home to be with him. This is clearly written in 1 Thessalonians 4:16 KJV and 1 Corinthians 15:52 KJV.


My study is not to prove the day of Christ refers to the Coming of Jesus to call us home (not to be confused with the second coming of Christ which takes place in Revelation 19 KJV.) Please see notes below that show the difference between Day of Christ and the Day of the Lord.


Dr. Andy Woods definitely is in error when he uses his perverted NASB Bible and tells us that verse 2 of 2 Thessalonians Chapter 2 is translated as DAY OF THE LORD which means the Tribulation. JD Farag parrots what Andy Woods says because he also uses a perverted Bible translation. And thus, Angel White is correct in smacking JD Farag and contenting him to his face. Shame on you JD Farag again for using a perverted Bible translation and to you as well Dr. Andy Woods.


However, Dr. Woods and JD Farag are correct when they properly identify the phrase falling away as apostasia which can be translated as PHYSICAL DEPARTURE and not a SPIRITUAL DEPARTURE.


How can we prove the the King James Bible is correct:


Some believe physical departure is an impossible translation because it would seem scripture is saying in 2 Thessalonians 2:2-3 (paraphrased) “Don’t be upset and afraid, because the Rapture can’t take place until the Rapture happens first and then the AntiChrist will be revealed.”


But in reality if we take 1 Thessalonians 4:16 KJV which reads:


16 For the Lord himself shall descend from heaven with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God: and the dead in Christ shall rise first:

Read full chapter


And verse 17 of 1 Thessalonians 4 KJV reads:



Then we which are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to meet the Lord in the air: and so shall we ever be with the Lord.




I am a licensed language teacher and have a fairly good understanding of English and Latin grammar. Looking carefully at verses 16 and 17 let’s study:


We see sequence of 3 events taking place in succession: 1: Jesus descends from the 3rd Heaven and appears up in the sky with a shout, with the voice of the archangel, and with the trump of God. 2. The second event is set up following the colon from event 1. Note a colon introduces an element or series of elements that illustrates or amplifies the information that preceded the colon. Here we see The Rapture or Catching Snatching up Harpazo taking place to meet the Lord in the air. And most importantly the word THEN begins this sequence. The word then is an adverb meaning in context: NEXT… 3. The third event is set up following another colon which tells us that we shall ever be with the Lord.


Now, if we take this 3 step event and apply scripture with Scripture we know of course that Paul is talking about Jesus descending from the 3rd Heaven to get his church. So let’s take the steps in 2 Thessalonians 2:2-3 KJV.



Don’t be upset and scared that Jesus has already descended and you missed it. (Because someone sent you a fake letter saying you missed the Rapture) 2. This day (Jesus descending to get us) can not happen unless the physical departure that I spoke of in my first letter to you in 1 Thessalonians 4:16,17 has taken place. 3. AND the AC be revealed.



So once again we see Dr. Andy and his follower JD Farag who apparently doesn’t like to fact check very well, take a perverted Bible that says in 2 Thessalonians 2:2 DAY OF THE LORD which is definitely referring to the Tribulation. Their habitual use of taking a square peg and pounding the hell out of it to make it fit shows them not good workmen.


However, Thank God their eschatology is solid in believing and teaching the PreTribulation Rapture.

NOTES:


Dr. Hinton Phd Harvard defending the KJV using as a start John 3:16 KJV


https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2021/03/why-kjv-john-316-is-so-important-vs-new.html



Why I rebuke all Pastors using a modern Bible Translation and misleading their flock


https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2021/03/a-strong-rebuke-to-any-christian-who.html




https://www.amazon.com/Dont-Go-Church-Christ-Building-ebook/dp/B07L39BV9L





◄ 1967. epiousios ►

Strong's Concordance

epiousios: for the coming day, for subsistence

Original Word: ἐπιούσιος, ον

Part of Speech: Adjective

Transliteration: epiousios

Phonetic Spelling: (ep-ee-oo'-see-os)

Definition: for the coming day, for subsistence

Usage: for the morrow, necessary, sufficient.










Church building where it all started. The place I was kicked out of Sunday School class at about the age of 6 years.


I don't go to church: from a blood bought, born again Christian with over 50 years of going to church



Dear People,



These 501c3 brick and mortar buildings (and even those run under private or limited liability corp) run by apostate trained CEOs called pastors are not BIBLICAL. They are literally making Merchandise of you and your children and your children's heritage. They are cursed by God under both Galatians 1:8,9 and 2 Peter 2:3... In fact 2 Peter 2:3, literally says these false teachers through feigned (study the word feigned: invented. fake. counterfeit. deception. fictitious. ) words make merchandise of you...

I've completed an 800 page Ebook containing over a thousand references, several thousand pages of source documentation titled: " I don't go to church. A 50 year testimony of attending church to say in agreement with Dr. Larkin, that today's churches are building the kingdom of the Antichrist. " see note 1 below... If anyone wants this open public domain book. I will email you a copy for free. Email me your request to vietrandy@gmail.com. Amazon lists it for $0.99. We wanted to post it for free. But Amazon requires a fee.



This church-going issue has now become my focus. I'm a retired US naval officer, and finished a career in consulting. and recently retired from teaching High school as a licensed teacher. I also spent years living in other countries, including over 6 yrs in Vietnam sharing Jesus with the Vietnamese people.



Here's my testimony below:



To God be the glory Forever! Amen!



Maranatha!

I Don't Go To Church (thethirdheaventraveler.com)

I do not go to church: from a blood bought, born again Christian with over 50 years of going to church (thethirdheaventraveler.com)

https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2018/05/first-and-foremost-all-praise-and-glory.html




The Return 2020 DECEPTION



https://youtu.be/i75BX1HfGMY



Disclaimer on E511



https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2020/09/take-youtuber-e511-with-grain-of-salt.html



The Perfect Storm for American Civil War; Christian strive lawfully



https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2020/11/httpsyoutu.html



Striving Lawfully



https://www.thethirdheaventraveler.com/2020/11/fight-good-fight-dear-christian-strive.html

NOTES ON



DAY OF THE LORD AND DAY OF CHRIST ARE DEFINITELY DIFFERENT


https://doctrine.org/the-day-of-christ



I don’t agree that both DAY OF THE LORD AND DAY OF CHRIST are used interchangeable but it’s worth looking at BY Shredding the Vail:


https://shreddingtheveil.org/?s=DAY+OF+CHRIST



Yes, the are interchangeable. Young's Literal Translation has either "the day of our Lord Jesus Christ", or "the day of our Lord Jesus", or as in 2 Thess. 2:2, "the day of Christ". The meaning is the same meaning as was used throughout the OT for "the day of the Lord." It was a day of judgment of wicked people, or a particular country / nation who would not repent.


Isa. 2:12,


" For the day of the Lord of hosts shall be upon every one that is proud and lofty, and upon every one that is lifted up; and he shall be brought low:" (KJV)


Isa. 13:9,


" Behold, the day of the Lord cometh, cruel both with wrath and fierce anger, to lay the land desolate: and he shall destroy the sinners thereof out of it." (KJV)


Jer. 46:10,


"For this is the day of the Lord God of hosts, a day of vengeance, that he may avenge him of his adversaries: and the sword shall devour, and it shall be satiate and made drunk with their blood: for the Lord God of hosts hath a sacrifice in the north country by the river Euphrates." (KJV)


Ezek. 13:5,


"Ye have not gone up into the gaps, neither made up the hedge for the house of Israel to stand in the battle in the day of the Lord." (KJV)


Amos 5:18,


"Woe unto you that desire the day of the Lord! to what end is it for you? the day of the Lord is darkness, and not light." (KJV)


And, the phrases that are synonymous with "the day of the Lord" are "the day of visitation" (Isa. 10:3), the "time of their visitation" (Jer. 10:1), "the year of their visitation" (Jer. 48:44), "day of wrath" (Job 21:30; Zeph. 1:15; Rom. 2:5), and "day(s) of vengeance" (Isa. 61:2; 63:4; Jer. 46:10; Luke 21:22).


All of these are associated with the anger and wrath of God. Just so, when used again in the NT it spoke of the wrath of God, and the judgment that was coming upon them for crucifying Christ and persecuting His church.


2 Pet. 3:10,


"But the day of the Lord will come as a thief in the night; in the which the heavens shall pass away with a great noise, and the elements shall melt with fervent heat, the earth also and the works that are therein shall be burned up." (KJV)


2 Pet. 3:10 is the same judgment prophesied from Ezek 22:19-22:


"Therefore thus saith the Lord God; Because ye are all become dross, behold, therefore I will gather you into the midst of Jerusalem.


20 As they gather silver, and brass, and iron, and lead, and tin, into the midst of the furnace, to blow the fire upon it, to melt it; so will I gather you in mine anger and in my fury, and I will leave you there, and melt you.


21 Yea, I will gather you, and blow upon you in the fire of my wrath, and ye shall be melted in the midst therof.


22 As silver is melted in the midst of the furnace, so shall ye be melted in the midst thereof; and ye shall know that I the Lord have poured out my fury upon you." (KJV)


This was judgment language which we should all be familiar with from the OT, and spoke of the "heavens" that would pass. This was not speaking of the heaven where God sits on His throne as that will never pass away. So, then the "heavens" that would pass were the ruling authorities of the nation or nations under judgment. See Isa. 13:13; 34:4; 51:6; Joel 2:10; 3:16; Hag. 2:6, etc.


The judgment day spoken of throughout the NT was the judgment that was coming upon Jerusalem for their rejection of the Messiah. Paul was comforting the Thessalonians who were asking if Christ had come yet. Read 2 Thess. 2:2-5 carefully,


"That ye be not soon shaken in mind, or be troubled, neither by spirit, nor by word, nor by letter as from us, as that the day of Christ is at hand.


3 Let no man deceive you by any means: for that day shall not come, except there come a falling away first, and that man of sin be revealed, the son of perdition;


4 Who opposeth and exalteth himself above all that is called God, or that is worshipped; so that he as God sitteth in the temple of God, shewing himself that he is God.


5 Remember ye not, that, when I was yet with you, I told you these things?" (KJV)


Paul was reminding them of what to look for. If they had to ask Paul if the day of Christ had already happened, then they were afraid they had missed it. If "the day of Christ" meant "the end of the world" which so many today are making it to be, then why would the Thessalonians be wondering if they had missed the "end of the world"?


A day of judgment came upon wicked people after they had been warned of His coming, of His visitation, of His wrath, of His anger. Christ's coming was a day of judgment against the tribes of Israel and they saw it by what had been foretold in Matt. 24, Luke 21, Mark 13... the destruction of that temple.


They were to watch for certain signs that would happen, and one of those was the lawless one, the man of sin. And, as Christ was speaking to His disciples - Jews - the warning was to Israel, and the land under judgment was Judea and the surrounding areas of Palestine. Therefore, the man of sin would have been someone directly involved with deceiving those in Judea and Jerusalem.


The lawlessness of which Paul spoke was already at work while he spoke to them. Therefore it was someone who was already living and was about to be revealed to them. Someone in the first century A.D. was the lawless one.


Many throughout history have associated this man of sin with Nero.


"“And after many plagues completed in the world, in the end he says that a beast ascended from the abyss…that is, of the Romans. Moreover that he was in the kingdom of the Romans, and that he was among the Caesars. The Apostle Paul also bears witness, for he says to the Thessalonians: Let him who now restraineth restrain, until he be taken out of the way; and then shall appear the Wicked One, even he whose coming is after the working of Satan, with signs an lying wonders.’ And that they might know that he should come who then was the prince, he adds: ‘He already endeavours after the secret of mischief’ – that is, the mischief which he is about to do he strives to do secretly; but he is not raised up by his own power, nor by that of his father, but by command of God.” (From Victorinus, Commentary on the Apocalypse, ad 11:7; Ante-Nicene Fathers, p. 354.)


Others believe that the man of sin was one of the Zealots that caused the riots in Jerusalem, possibly John of Gischala:


"This John physically entered the Temple, presented himself to the Zealots as a God-sent ambassador; and persuaded them to defy the laws of Rome and go to war to gain independence. He also instigated the calling in the Idumaeans to keep the Jewish sympathizers from submitting to Rome. He ordered the death of Ananus and the removal of the priesthood. After these atrocities, he became the official leader of the Zealot group m control of theTemple area-john held the temple” and began disregarded the laws of Rome, God, and man, and promising deliverance from the Romans. " From John Noe's post "What About Paul's Man of Sin" here.


The day of Christ, the day of our Lord Jesus Christ, and the day of Jesus Christ throughout the NT was the judgment day that was "at hand" when the books were written in the first century A.D. and was seen - observed - in the destruction of Jerusalem and the temple. The abomination of desolation - that which caused the desolation - was the Roman army whom God used to retaliate against the Jews.


They had used the Romans to carry out the crucifixion of our Lord and Savior. God then used the Romans to deliver His judgment in the day of His wrath in A.D. 70.


Further reading:


Exposition of II Thessalonians 1 & 2 here


My post "Days of His Visitation" at my blog ShreddingTheVeil


https://shreddingtheveil.org/?s=DAY+OF+CHRIST

Why Apostasia is used as Rapture

Arguments that Favor Apostasia as the Rapture The Sense of “Departure” in Classical and Biblical Sources The word apostasia is regularly translated “rebellion” or “defection” in Greek literature before the time of the writing of the New Testament. In a few cases, however, it does have the sense of “departure.” The reason for this difference is the context of the passages. At times, the word does not occur in a context in which the matter of rebellion against authority, or defection from a person, ideology, or religious faith is in view. Rather the noun adheres more closely to the verbal meaning of “depart” or some other spatial sense.10 The predominant meaning of rebellion and, at times, defection is also found in the Greek Old Testament. One must be careful when deviating from the established meanings in classical and biblical (LXX) writings, yet one must also not be afraid to take the minority meaning with spatial connotation when context warrants. Such may be the case in 2 Thessalonians 2:3. The Use of the Definite Article with apostasia One finds the use of the Greek article with apostasia in 2 Thess 2:3. Another example of this in 1 Macc 2:15, where defection from the Old Testament faith is generally viewed to be the proper translation of he apostasia. "And those who came from the king were compelling the defection in the city of Modein, in order to sacrifice." (1 Macc 2:15). What is the significance of these two instances? Similar to this passage in 1 Maccabees, 2 Thess 2:3 has the article and no qualifiers, such as defection from God, so the context is determinative for the meaning of apostasia. In the first two chapters of 1 Maccabees there is a description of the Greek victory of Israel by Alexander the Greek until the time of Antiochus Epiphanes, with the latter king invading Judah and enforcing a desecration of the temple. When one studies the context of 2 Thess 2:13 in the same way, the context speaks of the coming of Christ for the church and the coming man of sin after the restrainer is removed. Idea of Second Coming throughout 1 & 2 Thessalonians Paul is deeply concerned with the coming of Christ for believers. This is clear in that in each chapter of 1 Thessalonians he speaks of Jesus’ coming for His people. The apostle in 1 !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!! 10 Gordon R. Lewis, “Biblical Evidence for Pretribulationism,” Bibliotheca Sacra, Vol. 125, No. 499 (1968): 218. Thess 1:9-10a speaks of the rescue from the coming wrath that God’s Son would provide for believers. Paul says the Thessalonians give him hope and joy at the coming of Christ (2:19). The pivotal passage on the rapture is in 1 Thess 4:13-17, in which the apostle reveals that the dead would be caught up (from which we get the word “rapture”) together with living saints to be with Christ. Chapter 5:1-11 he continues his discussion found in chapter 4. He said that believers, unlike those in the world, would not be caught unready for Christ’s coming. One also finds discussion of the coming of Jesus in 2 Thessalonians. In chapter 2, addressing the false teaching since he left Thessalonica that Christ had already come, he tells the Christians that they need have no anxiety over this teaching. Contextual Reasons for apostasia to be the Rapture What in the context of 2 Thessalonians 2 would lead one to accept that the rapture, rather than defection or rebellion is in view? Let us look at the immediately preceding verses to the reference of an apostasia. 2 Thessalonians 2:1-2 reads, 1 Now we request you, brethren, with regard to the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him, 2 that you not be quickly shaken from your composure or be disturbed either by a spirit or a message or a letter as if from us, to the effect that the day of the Lord has come.” (2 Th 2:1–2 NAS95) The purpose of Paul’s teaching on the coming of Christ was to comfort the church. Each text in 1 and 2 Thessalonians emphasizes this truth. If apostasia carries the sense of “departure,” following his words in 2:1, this would add to the comfort and assurance. Moreover, he sought through verse 3 to assuage them of the false notion taught by those false teachers who came to them, that the Day of the Lord had already come. Contrary to this false teaching, the Day of the Lord (a time of judgment) would not come until two events occurred. One is the apostasia and the other the rise of the man of sin. Since neither of these two had taken place, they should not believe that the time for God’s judgment had arrived. What makes the most sense in the context, that the Day of the Lord had not come because a rebellion against government or a defection from the faith had not occurred, or that the departure to be with Christ had not occurred? Remember, in 1 Thessalonians 1, the encouragement was that the coming of Christ would rescue believers from the coming wrath. In addition to this, there are at least three more arguments that favor a departure rather than a rebellion/defection in the passage. First, in passages where a rebellion or defection is in view, the context speaks of the rebellion or defection, but such is not in few in preceding verses in 2 Thessalonians. Rather, as we have seen in a brief review of 1 and 2 Thessalonians, the coming of Christ is in view: “Now we request you, brethren, with regard to the coming of our Lord Jesus Christ and our gathering together to Him,” (2 Th 2:1 NAS95). Since the subject of the passage, then, is the coming of Christ, and nothing in this passage, or any other to my knowledge, has discussion of a rebellion against government or defection from Christianity as being a prerequisite for Christ’s coming, the most natural understanding of apostasia would be a spatial departure in concert with 1 Thess 4. Certainly Matthew 24 speaks of many being led to follow the Antichrist (Mt 24:5), but there is nothing about true believers following false Christs as an indication of Christ’s coming. Moreover, the events of Matthew 24 refer to the coming of Christ in judgment, not salvation, and relate to the time of the Tribulation and afterwards. A statement of false teachers in the church is given in Acts 20, but again, these to not concern the man of sin. Second, the word apostasia has the unusual article occurring with it, signifying that a specific event is in view, and one that is known to the readers. The only event that fits with this special sense would seem to be in 2 Thess 2:1 and the former teaching of Paul in 1 Thessalonians, particular chaps 4-5. This would favor also a rapture perspective. Last of all, is the use of "restrainer" in verses 6-7. What is Paul speaking of when he mentions a “restrainer” that keeps the man of sin from arising (note that the restrainer does not impact the apostasia)? The term apostasia and the rise of the man of sin are probably not the same event in verse 3, and the contrast of the restrainer and the man of sin lend support to apostasia being a departure. Verses 6 and 7 seem to be parallel of apostasia and man of sin. Generally the restrainer in verses 6 and 7 has been taken to be a reference to the Holy Spirit or to the church (though some have seen this a reference to government). What is interesting is that the idea of restrainer is expressed in both a personal and impersonal sense. The text reads, “6 And you know what restrains him now, so that in his time he will be revealed. 7 For the mystery of lawlessness is already at work; only he who now restrains will do so until he is taken out of the way.” (2 Th 2:6–7 NAS95). So there is a “what” that restrains and a “who” that restrains. What is it that keeps the man of sin from arising, and who keeps him from arising. I believe it is reasonable to conclude that the presence of the church restrains him and the presence of the work of the Holy Spirit in the church restrains him. When the antichrist comes to power, God’s redeemed will no longer be present, and as the Holy Spirit came upon the church in Acts 2, He leaves with the church in 2 Thessalonians 2.11

https://www.pre-trib.org/pretribfiles/pdfs/House-ADefenseoftheRapture.pdf