Why are you and your Pastor using a Perverted Bible Translation?

I posted a Blog a few years back asking why your Pastor is using a Perverted Bible
Translation.  But I've come to realize, that your pastor most likely isn't going
to change.  So now you must seriously ask yourself why you continue in his/her false teaching?

Why are you using a Perverted Bible Translation?

Why are you mocking a King James Only Saint?

You honestly think it doesn't matter to God or it isn't or doesn't affect essential doctrine?

I ask any reader to openly and honestly respond to this Blog.  This is only a small
sample of the insanity and satanic influence of the Modern Bible Translations.

I can't tell you how many of my readers, subscribers and others tell me they use the
King James Bible along with other translations to give them a better understanding
of God's word.  

Why King James Only


Why today's Laodicean Church loves modern Bible Translations


All perverted modern-day translations like the NASB are Satanic. Why? The modern translations cause doubt and question the final authority of the KING JAMES BIBLE which stood the test of time for 500 years until Wescott and Hort 2 reprobates from Cambridge were commissioned by the Vatican to take down the KJB. 

 The goal of the NASB and their kind is to question and cause confusion as to what is truly written to leave one with the impression that there is NO FINAL AUTHORITY. Satan said in the garden, “Yea, hath God said, ...... ?” Genesis 3:1 KJB. The NASB writes, “Did God REALLY say…..” To use the word “really” in context here is completely different from …”YEA, Hath God said?” 

 The word Yea, means that Satan - here Lucifer - is agreeing 100 % with God said what he did in fact say....BUT ..asks rhetorically WHY did he say this?  NOT did God REALLY say this. Of course Lucifer is too smart to know that EVE certainly knew what God said. Lucifer is not going to deny that,. OF course God really did say what he said. Lucifer’s goal is to get EVE to QUESTION WHY would God say what he said - NOT to challenge EVE did God really say that to you. Lucifer would have lost the battle for Eve's intelligent, solid memory providing mind right there on the spot… 

 Yea = absolute certainty in agreement. It would be like me asking a rhetorical question: YEA (Yes, of course, I acknowledge God said that…. Then >>> You shall not eat of every tree of the garden? 

The question is to plant serious doubt in understanding there is something hidden to make the listener ask NOW WHY WOULD GOD SAY WHAT HE SAID. NOT - DID GOD REALLY SAY WHAT HE SAID?

We see Lucifer set the hook by explaining in context the reason why God did this was to keep Adam and Eve from being gods. Continue: So, you’re telling me your NASB is going to help me understand my KJB. No thank you. I will study the meaning of the words YEA in context to FULLY comprehend what is happening here.

Next, Please go to Luke 17:21. Tell me please how your NASB helps you understand the KJB? I pray you take the time and respond. This is the scripture where I eviscerated Dr. Andy Woods on his otherwise brilliant work THE COMING KINGDOM. Since Dr. Woods and 95,5 % of the apostate trained theologians use the NASB; he butchered this scripture in profoundly horrific ways…. To fully understand the implications please read this study: Reproving Dr. Andrew Woods - a case study in how modern day Bible Scholars pour Leaven into the Manna (thethirdheaventraveler.com)


I asked Dr. Woods to defend his NASB translation and how it completely butchered his entire chapter when in the light of the proper translation given in the KJB…..But, of course, he never did, obviously. Next please open your NASB and go to Psalm 12:6,7. Compared with the KJB - Which one is LYING? One of them has to be lying. To prove the NASB is lying, go to 2 Timothy 3:16 KJB.

Honestly ask yourself why would the NASB make such a grievous doctrinal error. My Bible tells me a true witness never lies, but a false witness utters lies. Proverbs 14:5 KJB. Next, please go to Isaiah 14:12. Tell me please how your NASB helps you understand the KJB. Your perverse NASB hides the name Lucifer and worse confuses Lucifer with Jesus Christ. Please compare with Revelation 22:16 KJB if you can't find this.

Next please go to John 3:16 and explain how your NASB would help you understand the KJB? My KJB says only BEGOTTEN son. Your NASB says, “ONLY SON”. Read from Dr. Hinton Phd Harvard Univ a man who has dedicated his life to defending the KJB describes how one simple word BEGOTTEN is so crucial. Ridiculous KJV Bible Corrections - John 3:16, Only Begotten (av1611.com) .


I pray you understand why a family member of mine while studying their Master’s of Divinity used only the NASB and his textbooks were blasphemous and heretical in their questioning of the divinity of Jesus Christ. I do not speak without knowledge. Would you be able to see how this would leave a man confused? My KJB tells me a double minded man is UNSTABLE in ALL his ways. This is a LUKEWARM man living in the Laodicean Church who is not an overcomer. Please take this with love and not hateful comments. I pray your eyes be opened. Amen!

Next please go to 1 Corinthians 15:1-4.. Please tell me how your NASB clears up the KJB? Did you know that the NASB and NIV are similar in that they say “Remind you, NIV” and “Make known to you” NASB. Compare to the KJB. Why would the KJB use DECLARE unto you? There is a powerful distinction between DECLARE something and to REMIND or make something KNOWN. Declare makes this ESSENTIAL SACRED DOCTRINE. Why? The Oxford hard copy dictionary page 148 literally means to AVOW = Make a Vow before God as to what I am giving you is a solemn testimony being LEGALLY JUSTIFIED and DEDICATED unto God as truth and I am biding myself to this before God legally as written here. What is written here? THE GOSPEL OF PAUL.

Do you know your NASB dilutes VERSE  2 as follows: hold firmly to (THE WORD)“what WORD I” NASB vs keep in memory of (THE GOSPEL) what I preached… KJB.

if you hold firmly to the word which I preached to you, unless you believed in vain.



If you keep in memory what (THE GOSPEL) I preached unto you.

The word is the Word of God. The Gospel is in context here precisely what Paul is referring to

 Verse 3: NASB = Among the First. KJB = I DELIVERED UNTO YOU FIRST OF ALL. . 

For I handed down to you [b]as of first importance what I also received  NASB

For I delivered unto you first of all that which I also received... KJB.

The NASB means Paul had to get this message out first.   The KJB tells us that of all that Jesus Christ had given Paul, THE GOSPEL ... THE GOSPEL OF PAUL... THE GOSPEL OF GRACE IS OF PREMIUM, FIRST, PARAMOUNT IMPORTANCE. This replaces the Kingdom Gospel.

 Your NASB OMITS the word GOSPEL by seriously confusing verse 2 with WORD. Verse 3 even makes this more glaring.

 This is why I continually have to deal with misinformed people telling me that Paul isn’t preaching the GOSPEL according to 1 Corinthians 15:1-4. 

 The GOSPEL is the DISPENSATION OF THE AGE OF GRACE which is PAUL’S GOSPEL as given to him by Jesus Christ. Also to keep in memory is so much deeper than to hold firmly to something. I pray your eyes be opened. Amen! Maranatha!

Why on earth would you, could you possibly want to use a perverted Bible? Please don't be foolish and think it helps you understand God's word clearer. This is a terrible deception. Another point. EASTER. EASTER IS correctly translated in the King James Bible and NOT Passover. Why? King Herod celebrated EASTER holiday season
and NOT Passover and if you'd like there's exact reasons why EASTER is written in the KJB and the Satanic NASB and their kind use Passover.

I PRAY your eyes be OPENED 

Again, these are only a few, few samples of the hundreds of SERIOUS ERRORS.
please read my studies in links above.

About Easter in the King James Bible

Isn't "Easter" in Acts 12:4 a mistranslation in the King James Bible? (av1611.org)
article by Dr. Gipp

“Easter” in Acts 12:4 King James Bible

QUESTION: Isn't "Easter" in Acts 12:4 a mistranslation of the word "pascha" and should it be translated as "passover"?

ANSWER: No, "pascha" is properly translated "Easter" in Acts 12:4 as the following explanation will show.

EXPLANATION: The Greek word which is translated "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is the word "pascha". This word appears twenty-nine times in the New Testament. Twenty-eight of those times the word is rendered "Passover" in reference to the night when the Lord passed over Egypt and killed all the firstborn of Egypt (Exodus 12:12), thus setting Israel free from four hundred years of bondage.

The many opponents to the concept of having a perfect Bible have made much of this translation of "pascha".

Coming to the word "Easter" in God's Authorized Bible, they seize upon it imagining that they have found proof that the Bible is not perfect. Fortunately for lovers of the word of God, they are wrong. Easter, as we know it, comes from the ancient pagan festival of Astarte. Also known as Ishtar (pronounced "Easter"). This festival has always been held late in the month of April. It was, in its original form, a celebration of the earth "regenerating" itself after the winter season. The festival involved a celebration of reproduction. For this reason the common symbols of Easter festivities were the rabbit (the same symbol as "Playboy" magazine), and the egg. Both are known for their reproductive abilities. At the center of attention was Astarte, the female deity. She is known in the Bible as the "queen of heaven" (Jeremiah 7:18; 44:17-25). She is the mother of Tammuz (Ezekiel 8:14) who was also her husband! These perverted rituals would take place at sunrise on Easter morning (Ezekiel 8:13-16). From the references in Jeremiah and Ezekiel, we can see that the true Easter has never had any association with Jesus Christ.

Problem: Even though the Jewish passover was held in mid April (the fourteenth) and the pagan festival Easter was held later the same month, how do we know that Herod was referring to Easter in Acts 12:4 and not the Jewish passover? If he was referring to the passover, the translation of "pascha" as "Easter" is incorrect. If he was indeed referring to the pagan holyday (holiday) Easter, then the King James Bible (1611) must truly be the very word and words of God for it is the only Bible in print today which has the correct reading.

To unravel the confusion concerning "Easter" in verse 4, we must consult our FINAL authority, THE BIBLE. The key which unlocks the puzzle is found not in verse 4, but in verse 3. (Then were the days of unleavened bread... ") To secure the answer that we seek, we must find the relationship of the passover to the days of unleavened bread. We must keep in mind that Peter was arrested during the "days of unleavened bread" (Acts 12:3).

Our investigation will need to start at the first Passover. This was the night in which the LORD smote all the firstborn in Egypt. The Israelites were instructed to kill a lamb and strike its blood on the two side posts and the upper door post (Exodus 12:4, 5). Let us now see what the Bible says concerning the first passover, and the days of unleavened bread.

Exodus 12:13-18: "And the blood shall be to you for a token upon the houses where ye are: and when I see the blood, I will pass over you, and the plague shall not be upon you to destroy you, when I smite the land of Egypt.

14 And this day shall be unto you for a memorial; and ye shall keep it a feast to the LORD throughout your generations; ye shall keep it a feast by an ordinance for ever.

15 Seven days shall ye eat unleavened bread; even the first day ye shall put away leaven out of your houses: for whosoever eateth leavened bread from the first day until the seventh day, that soul shall be cut off from Israel.

16 And in the first day there shall be an holy convocation to you; no manner of work shall be done in them, save that which every man must eat, that only may be done of you.

17 And ye shall observe the feast of unleavened bread; for in this selfsame day have I brought your armies out of the land of Egypt: therefore shall ye observe this day in your generations by an ordinance for ever.

18 In the first month, on the fourteenth day of the month at even ye shall eat unleavened bread, until the one and twentieth day of the month at even."

Here in Exodus 12:13 we see how the passover got its name. The LORD said that He would "pass over" all of the houses which had the blood of the lamb marking the door.

After the passover (Exodus 12:13, 14), we find that seven days shall be fulfilled in which the Jews were to eat unleavened bread. These are the days of unleavened bread!

In verse 18 we see that dates for the observance were April 14th through the 21st. This religious observance is stated more clearly in Numbers 28:16-18:

"And in the fourteenth day of the first month is the passover of the LORD.

17 And in the fifteenth day of this month is the feast: seven days shall unleavened bread be eaten.

18 In the first day shall be an holy convocation;ye shall do no manner of servile work therein:"

In verse 16 we see that the passover is only considered to be the 14th of the month. On the next morning, the 15th begins the "days of unleavened bread."

Deuteronomy 16:1-8: "Observe the month of Abib (April), and keep the passover unto the LORD thy God: for in the month of Abib the LORD thy God brought thee forth out of Egypt by night.

2 Thou shalt therefore sacrifice the passover unto the LORD thy God, of the flock and the herd, in the place which the LORD shall choose to place his name there.

3 Thou shalt eat no leavened bread with it; seven days shalt thou eat unleavened bread therewith, even the bread of affliction: for thou camest forth out of the land of Egypt in haste: that thou mayest remember the day when thou camest forth out of the land of Egypt all the days of thy life.

4 And there shall be no leavened bread seen with thee in all thy coast seven days; neither shall there any thing of the flesh, which thou sacrificedst the first day at even, remain all night until the morning.

5 Thou mayest not sacrifice the passover within any of thy gates, which the LORD thy God giveth thee:

6 But at the place which the LORD thy God shall choose to place his name in, there thou shalt sacrifice the passover at even, at the going down of the sun, at the season that thou camest forth out of Egypt.

7 And thou shalt roast and eat it in the place which the LORD thy God shall choose: and thou shalt turn in the morning, and go unto thy tents.

8 Six days thou shalt eat unleavened bread: and on the seventh day shall be a solemn assembly to the LORD thy God: thou shalt do no work therein."

Here in Deuteronomy we see again that the passover is sacrificed on the first night (Deuteronomy 16:1). It is worth noting that the passover was to be celebrated in the evening (vs.6) not at sunrise (Ezekiel 8:13-16).

In II Chronicles 8:13 we see that the feast of unleavened bread was one of the three Jewish feasts to be kept during the year.

II Chronicles 8:13: "Even after a certain rate every day, offering according to the commandment of Moses, on the sabbaths, and on the new moons, and on the solemn feasts, three times in the year, even in the feast of unleavened bread, and in the feast of weeks, and in the feast of tabernacles."

Whenever the passover was kept, it always preceded the feast of unleavened bread. In II Chronicles 30 some Jews who were unable to keep the passover in the first month were allowed to keep it in the second. But the dates remained the same.

II Chronicles 30:l5,21: "Then they killed the passover on the fourteenth day of the second month: and the priests and the Levites were ashamed, and sanctified themselves, and brought in the burnt offerings into the house of the LORD. And the children of lsrael that were present at Jerusalem kept the feast of unleavened bread seven days with great gladness: and the Levites and the priests praised the LORD day by day, singing with loud instruments unto the LORD."

Ezra 6:19,22: "And the children of the captivity kept the passover upon the fourteenth day of the first month. And kept the feast of unleavened bread seven days with joy: for the LORD had made them joyful, and turned the heart of the king of Assyria unto them, to strengthen their hands in the work of the house of God, the God of Israel."

We see then, from studying what the BIBLE has to say concerning the subject that the order of events went as follows:

On the 14th of April the lamb was killed. This is the passover. No event following the 14th is ever referred to as the passover.

On the morning of the 15th begins the days of unleavened bread, also known as the feast of unleavened bread.

It must also be noted that whenever the passover is mentioned in the New Testament, the reference is always to the meal, to be eaten on the night of April 14th not the entire week. The days of unleavened bread are NEVER referred to as the Passover. (It must be remembered that the angel of the Lord passed over Egypt on one night, not seven nights in a row.

Now let us look at Acts 12:3, 4:

"And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

Verse 3 shows that Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (April 15-21). The Bible says: "Then were the days of unleavened bread." The passover (April 14th) had already come and gone. Herod could not possibly have been referring to the passover in his statement concerning Easter. The next Passover was a year away! But the pagan holiday of Easter was just a few days away. Remember! Herod was a pagan Roman who worshipped the "queen of heaven". He was NOT a Jew. He had no reason to keep the Jewish passover. Some might argue that he wanted to wait until after the passover for fear of upsetting the Jews. There are two grievous faults in this line of thinking.

First, Peter was no longer considered a Jew. He had repudiated Judaism. The Jews would have no reason to be upset by Herod's actions.

Second, he could not have been waiting until after the passover because he thought the Jews would not kill a man during a religious holiday. They had killed Jesus during passover (Matthew 26:17-19, 47). They were also excited about Herod's murder of James. Anyone knows that a mob possesses the courage to do violent acts during religious festivities, not after.

In further considering Herod's position as a Roman, we must remember that the Herods were well known for celebrating (Matthew 14:6-11). In fact, in Matthew chapter 14 we see that a Herod was even willing to kill a man of God during one of his celebrations.

It is elementary to see that Herod, in Acts 12, had arrested Peter during the days of unleavened bread, after the passover. The days of unleavened bread would end on the 21st of April. Shortly after that would come Herod's celebration of pagan Easter. Herod had not killed Peter during the days of unleavened bread simply because he wanted to wait until Easter. Since it is plain that both the Jews (Matthew 26:17-47) and the Romans (Matthew 14:6-11) would kill during a religious celebration, Herod's opinion seemed that he was not going to let the Jews "have all the fun." He would wait until his own pagan festival and see to it that Peter died in the excitement.

Thus we see that it was God's providence which had the Spirit-filled translators of our Bible (King James) to CORRECTLY translate "pascha" as "Easter". It most certainly did not refer to the Jewish passover. In fact, to change it to "passover" would confuse the reader and make the truth of the situation unclear.

Dr. Gipp


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